You Are On The Scene Of A 68-year-old Patient With A History Of Copd Who Is Breathing 44 Times Per Minute (2024)

Medicine College

Answers

Answer 1

You should provide the patient oxygen via a bag-valve-mask at all times. A vital emergency skill is bag-valve-mask (BVM) ventilation.

When endotracheal intubation or another definitive method of controlling the airway is not an option, this basic airway management approach enables patients to be ventilated and oxygenated while waiting for a more permanent airway to be created.

The most significant drawback of a BVM is that it takes training and practice to use one properly. Even after extensive practice, many still struggle to maintain a good mask seal and ventilate enough volume when only one rescuer is available.

Thus, the most crucial treatment you can provide the patient is oxygen via a bag-valve mask. Ventilation with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) is an essential emergency skill.

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an older adult client with mild hypothermia has been admitted to the health care facility. which intervention will the nurse use to promote comfort and sleep for the older adult client?

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The intervention will the nurse use to promote comfort and sleep for the older adult client is to ensure that the environment is warmer.

Patients should be taught how to make their home environment more conducive to sleep. A warm bath and a glass of milk or a snack before bed will help you sleep better. If the patient is in bed and cannot sleep after 15-30 minutes.

Simple intervention Providing a back massage can promote comfort and sleep for resting inpatients. Sleep duration nocturnal awakenings loud snoring and episodes of apnea should be recorded. Note physical or psychological symptoms. she should get up and move quietly until she is sleepy.

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discussion board question: review the scenario below and answer following questions: which units are overstaffed and which are understaffed?of those units that are overstaffed, what will you do with the unneeded staff?how will you staff units that are understaffed? will an outside agency or mandatory overtime methods be used?how did staffing mix and patient classification system (pcs) acuity levels factor into your decisions?what safeguards can you build into the staffing plan for unanticipated admissions or changes in patient acuity during the shift?

Answers

Yes hospitals can force employees to work mandatory overtime. Employers can also terminate an employee for refusal to work the mandated overtime.

which units are overstaffed and which are understaffed? The ICU unit is understaffed The Pediatrics unit is overstaffed The Obstetrics unit is understaffThe medical floor is overstaffedThe Surgical Floor is well staffed

what will you do with the unneeded staff?

The unneeded staff can be shifted to the units of ICU where 2 staff members are required . Also, these unneeded staff can be eliminated from the hospitals.

How did staffing mix and patient classification system (pcs) acuity levels factor into your decisions?

Although data comparisons with other organizations are not possible, a healthcare institution can create its own PCAS that is unique to that company. If the organization already has a Staffing and Scheduling System, the newly formed PCAS may be connected with the additional functionalities of the existing staffing system.

what safeguards can you build into the staffing plan for unanticipated admissions or changes in patient acuity during the shift?

We can use agency nurses and travel nurses typically employed by an external nursing broker for unanticipated admissions or changes in patient acuity during the shift.

What is hospital staff management ?

The process by which healthcare providers effectively and efficiently administer everything from patient registration to appointment scheduling, document management, consultation management, lab management, drug safety, report generation, staff management, outpatient management, and so much more is known as hospital management.

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a client is brought to the emergency department after injuring the right arm in a bicycle accident. the orthopedic surgeon tells the nurse that the client has a greenstick fracture of the arm. what does this mean?

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One side of the bone is broken and the other side is bent.

A greenstick fracture occurs when one side of the bone is broken and the other is bent. A greenstick fracture is also a partial fracture in which the fracture line extends only partially through the bone substance and does not completely disrupt bone continuity. (Greenstick fracture is also known as willow fracture and hickory-stick fracture.)

In a complete fracture, the fracture line extends through the entire bone substance. A pathologic fracture is one that occurs as a result of an underlying bone disorder, such as osteoporosis or a tumor. It usually occurs with little trauma. In a displaced fracture, bone fragments are separated at the fracture line.

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a client reporting she recently had a positive pregnancy test has reported to the emergency department stating one-sided lower abdominal pain. the health care provider has prescribed a series of tests. which test will provide the most definitive confirmation of an ectopic pregnancy?

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Abdominal ultrasound test will provide the most definitive confirmation of an ectopic pregnancy.

What is ectopic pregnancy?

It is a pregnancy in which the fetus develops externally to the uterus.

The fertilized egg cannot survive outside of the uterus. If left unchecked, it could damage nearby organs and cause a blood loss that could be fatal.

What are the symptoms of ectopic pregnancy?

An ectopic pregnancy may not always present any symptoms and may not be discovered until a routine prenatal exam.

Symptoms, if any, often begin between the fourth and the twelfth week of pregnancy.

Symptoms may combine any of the following:

a missing period and other pregnancy-related indicators,

discomfort when urinating or pooing low down on one side of your stomach vagin*l bleeding or a brown watery discharge ache in the back of your shoulder.

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2. describe one of your experiences that will provide evidence to the committee on admissions that you will be able to contribute to the culture of collaboration at the west virginia university school of medicine. (150 words)

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A close-knit community of learners, instructors, employees, practitioners, and researchers that prioritize health and wellness makes up the West Virginia University School of Medicine.

What sets the West Virginia School of Medicine apart?A close-knit community of learners, instructors, employees, practitioners, and researchers that prioritize health and wellness makes up the West Virginia University School of Medicine.Many of the School of Medicine's graduates chose rural medicine to assist fill the state's physician shortage because of the emphasis the school places on rural health experiences. The college is now ranked 13th for training rural physicians. At WVU, there are more than 60 research labs, all of which are classified as R1 facilities.Across its three campuses, the WVU School of Medicine fosters a lively, close-knit community where individuals can openly discuss their interests and opinions. We support kids in expressing their own personalities since doing so creates a distinct picture.

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Students must be chosen by the Committee on Admissions (COA) who can demonstrate that they will carry out the WVU SoM's goal. A solid background in patient care, including MD shadowing, leadership and educational positions, research, and service to West Virginia and other communities is required of applicants.

Core Competencies for Medical Students Entering.

The COA employs a comprehensive evaluation of each applicant, which includes the use of competency-based admissions. Although the WVU SoM no longer needs any particular courses, all applicants must be able to demonstrate a solid foundation in science and a solid set of social and interpersonal skills.

Successful completion of coursework, good MCAT performance, and specialized experiences that have built the necessary knowledge foundation, such as research, employment, military courses, and self-study, can all serve as indicators of competency mastery. Additionally, the interview and letters of recommendation can be used to highlight an individual's interpersonal, intrapersonal, and communication skills.

On the secondary application, candidates will have the chance to explain how they have met the necessary competences.

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when assessing a client, what finding would the nurse interpret as indicating stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system? (select all that apply.)

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Pupil constriction, Bronchoconstriction and Decreased heart rate indicates stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system.

The parasympathetic nervous system (PSNS) is one of three divisions of the autonomic nervous system, along with the sympathetic and enteric nervous systems. The enteric nervous system is sometimes considered a component of the autonomic nervous system and other times as a separate system.

The parasympathetic nervous system derives its nerve fibers from the central nervous system. Several cranial nerves, including the oculomotor nerve, facial nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, and vagus nerve, are examples of specific nerves.

In calm "rest and digest" situations, the parasympathetic nervous system predominates, whereas the sympathetic nervous system drives the "fight or flight" response in stressful situations. The primary function of the PNS is to conserve energy for later use and to regulate bodily functions such as digestion and urination.

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a nurse is caring for a client admitted with symptoms of an anorectal infection; cultures indicate that the client has a viral infection. the nurse should anticipate the administration of what drug?

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Acyclovir (Zovirax) is often given to patients with viral anorectal infections. Doxycycline (Vibramycin) and penicillin (penicillin G) are drugs of choice for bacterial infections. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is used for other infections with a bacterial etiology; it is ineffective against viruses.

The nurse should anticipate the administration of a drug that is known as Acyclovir.

What do you mean by Anorectal infection?

Anorectal infection may be defined as a type of medical condition that significantly involves the collection of pus under the skin in the area of the anus and rectum.

Many glands are found within the body's anus. If one of these glands becomes clogged, it can get infected, and an abscess can develop. According to the context of this question, the drug Acyclovir is often administered in patients with viral anorectal infections.

Doxycycline (Vibramycin) and penicillin (penicillin G) are the drugs of choice for bacterial infections. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is typically utilized for other infections with a bacterial etiology.

Therefore, the nurse should anticipate the administration of a drug that is known as Acyclovir.

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the nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with type ii diabetes. which treatment option does the nurse expect to provide education for in regards to this diagnosis?

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The treatment option that the nurse expects to provide education for in regard to this diagnosis is Diet and exercise.

Type 2 diabetes develops when the pancreas, a large gland located behind the stomach, is unable to create enough insulin to regulate blood glucose levels or when the body's cells don't react appropriately to the insulin that is produced.

It is brought on by issues with the hormone or molecule called insulin in the body. It frequently correlates with being overweight or inactive, as well as with a family history of type 2 diabetes.

Type 2 diabetes is characterized by improper insulin use by the body. And while some people can regulate their blood glucose (blood sugar) levels with healthy nutrition and exercise, others might require medication or insulin to do so.

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within six months of effectively using methicillin to treat s. aureus infections in a community, all new infections were caused by methicillin resistant s. aureus (mrsa). how can this result best be explained?

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S. aureus can become resistant to methicillin and other β-lactam antibiotics through the expression of a foreign PBP, PBP2a, that is resistant to the action of methicillin but which can perform the functions of the host PBPs.

What is methicillin?

Methicillin, also called methicillin, an antibiotic formerly used to treat bacterial infections caused by organisms of the genus Staphylococcus. Methicillin is a semi-synthetic derivative of penicillin. First produced in the late 1950s, it was developed as a penicillinase-resistant type of antibiotic – it contained a modification to the original structure of penicillin that made it resistant to a bacterial enzyme called penicillinase (beta-lactamase). This enzyme is produced by most strains of Staphylococcus and disrupts certain types of penicillins by hydrolyzing the beta-lactam ring, which is essential for the antimicrobial activity of these drugs.

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which would the nurse teach the parents of a child who is being discharged from the hospital after a diagnosis of acute spasmodic laryngitis to help prevent another coup episode

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The most typical viral respiratory tract infection in children is croup. Croup typically affects the larynx and trachea, as indicated by its alternate names, acute laryngotracheitis and acute laryngotracheo bronchitis, however this condition may also affect the bronchi.

What is croup?The most typical viral respiratory tract infection in children is croup. Croup typically affects the larynx and trachea, as indicated by its alternate names, acute laryngotracheitis and acute laryngotracheobronchitis, however this condition may also affect the bronchi. The term of this respiratory condition, which has been known to doctors for centuries, comes from either the old Scots word roup or the Anglo-Saxon word kropan, both of which signify to scream out in a harsh voice.The most frequent cause of hoarseness, coughing, and the development of acute stridor in febrile youngsters is croup. Coryza symptoms might be nonexistent, minimal, or severe.

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Croup is the most common viral respiratory infection among children. As suggested by its variant names, acute laryngotracheitis and acute laryngotracheo bronchitis, croup primarily affects the larynx and trachea, though this disorder may also affect the bronchi.

What is the viral respiratory infection ?

Croup is the most common viral respiratory infection among children. As suggested by its variant names, acute laryngotracheitis and acute laryngotracheobronchitis, croup primarily affects the larynx and trachea, though this ailment may also affect the bronchi.The phrase for this respiratory ailment, which has been known to physicians for centuries, is said to have originated from either the Anglo-Saxon word kropan or the old Scots word roup, both of which mean to scream out loudly.Croup is the most common cause of hoarseness, coughing, and the emergence of acute stridor in febrile children. There may be no symptoms, few symptoms, or severe symptoms of coryza.

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the nurse helps a client to correctly perform peritoneal dialysis at home. the nurse must educate the client about the procedure. which educational information should the nurse provide to the client? clean the catheter insertion site daily with soap keep the dialysis supplies in a clean area, away from children and pets wear a mask while handling any dialysate solutions keep the catheter stabilized to the abdomen, below the belt line

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The educational information that the nurse provide to the client is about keeping the dialysis supplies in a clean area and away from the childrens and pets.

Why is it important to keep the dialysis supplies away?

Since the supplies could be harmful to kids and animals, it's crucial to keep them out of the way and in a clean space when not in use. Masks are often only used during exchanges, particularly if a client has an upper respiratory infection.

Daily cleaning of the catheter insertion site should be done without the use of soap and instead with an antiseptic such povidone-iodine. In order to prevent continuous rubbing, the catheter should also be secured to the abdomen above the belt line rather than below it.

Therefore, The educational information that the nurse provide to the client is about keeping the dialysis supplies in a clean area and away from the childrens and pets.

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the nurse is working as charge on a medical-surgical unit and is working with a graduate nurse who has been on orientation for the past 4 weeks. which client should the charge nurse assign to the new nurse?

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Applying nystatin (Myostatin) powder to the area three times daily.

What about Myostatin?Myostatin is almost exclusively found in skeletal muscles, which are used for movement and are active both before and after birth. This protein typically controls muscle growth to prevent excessive muscular growth.The MSTN gene in humans produces the myostatin protein. Myocytes manufacture and release the myokine known as myostatin, which acts on muscle cells to stop them from growing. The TGF beta protein family includes the secreted growth differentiation factor known as myostatin.Because myostatin inhibits muscle development, it improves the phenotype in a number of diseases that cause muscle atrophy. Myostatin's impact is dependent on the genetic and pathophysiological background, therefore it might not always be effective.A rare disorder called myostatin-related muscular hypertrophy is marked by decreased body fat and increased muscle mass. Those that are affected have up to twice as much muscle mass as average. They typically have stronger muscles as well.

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Three daily applications of nystatin (Myostatin) powder to the affected area.

Myostatin, what about it?

Skeletal muscles, which are utilized for movement and are active both before and after birth, are the only tissues in which myostatin is nearly completely present.

Normally, this protein regulates muscle growth to prevent uncontrolled muscle growth.

The human MSTN gene makes the myostatin protein.

Myostatin, a myokine that myocytes produce and release, inhibits muscle cell growth by acting on it.

The human MSTN gene makes the myostatin protein.

Myostatin, a myokine that myocytes produce and release, inhibits muscle cell growth by acting on it.

Myostatin, a secreted growth differentiation factor, is a member of the TGF beta protein family.

Myostatin slows muscle growth, which enhances the phenotype in certain disorders that result in muscular atrophy.

Myostatin may not always be successful because its effect depends on the genetic and pathophysiological background.

Decreased body fat and increased muscle mass are symptoms of a rare condition called myostatin-related muscular hypertrophy.

Affected individuals can have up to double the average amount of muscle mass.

Additionally, they often have stronger muscles.

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Which of the following words on an ingredient list would alert you to the presence of trans fatty acids in the product?
a. liquid corn oil
b. peanut oil
c. chicken fat
d. BHA or BHT
e. hydrogenated vegetable oil

Answers

Option e. hydrogenated vegetable oil, on an ingredient list would alert you to the presence of trans fatty acids in the product.

Trans-fatty acids ar factory-made fats created throughout a method known as chemical action, that is geared toward stabilising unsaturated oils to stop them from turning into rancid and to stay them solid at temperature. they'll be significantly dangerous for heart health and will create a risk surely cancers.

Hydrogenated vegetable oils' trans fats are shown to damage heart health. Studies reveal that trans fats will increase levels of lipoprotein (bad) cholesterin whereas decreasing smart alpha-lipoprotein (good) cholesterin, each of that ar risk factors for heart condition.

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when a relief charge nurse posts assignments, a nurse notes that they are no longer assigned to a client whom the nurse has cared for the previous 2 nights. how should the nurse respond to this assignment?

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A nurse who has been given the responsibility by the Medical Center to assist and coordinate the clinical tasks of an organized nursing unit, including providing patient care.

What does a nurse on relief duty do?A nurse who has been given the responsibility by the Medical Center to assist and coordinate the clinical tasks of an organized nursing unit, including providing patient care.In the majority of hospitals, a unit charge nurse is in charge of allocating patient shifts to nurses based on prior procedures and experience. The process of assigning nurses to patients is frequently a manual one in which the charge nurse must quickly go through a variety of decision-making criteria.Charge nurses need to be extremely empathic in order to succeed in their position. They must be understanding of both their coworkers' and patients' worries.

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An organised nursing unit's clinical responsibilities, including delivering patient care, are assisted and coordinated by a nurse who has been given that job by the medical centre.

What entails relief nursing work?

An organized nursing unit's clinical responsibilities, including delivering patient care, are assisted and coordinated by a nurse who has been given that job by the medical centre.

A unit charge nurse is in charge of assigning patient shifts to nurses based on previous practices and experience in the majority of hospitals. The charge nurse has to quickly review a range of decision-making criteria when allocating nurses to patients, which is typically a manual process.

Charge nurses must be incredibly sensitive to be successful in their role. They must be sensitive to the worries of both their patients and their coworkers.

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an airplane crash results in mass casualties. the nurse is directing personnel to tag all victims. which information should be placed on the tag? select all that apply.

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An airplane crash results in mass casualties and the nurse is directing personnel to tag all victims therefore the information which should be placed on the tag include the following below:

a) Medications and treatments administered.

b) Identifying information when possible (such as name, age, and address).

d) Triage priority.

Who is a Nurse?

This is referred to as a healthcare professionals who specializes in the taking care of the sick and ensuring that adequate recovery is achieved so as to prevent various forms of complications.

In the case of an accident in which there were mass casualties then the information which should be contained in the tag is the name, age, etc for easy identification. The treatment administered and triage priority should also be included as it makes it easy for healthcare professionals to know the right care to be given to them.

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The options are:

a) Medications and treatments administered.

b) Identifying information when possible (such as name, age, and address).

c) Next of kin.

d) Triage priority.

e) Presence of jewelry.

the emergency department nurse receives a telephone call and is informed that a tornado has hit a local residential area and numerous casualties have occurred. the victims will be brought to the emergency department. which would be the initial nursing action?

Answers

The initial nursing action would include Launch the facility-specific emergency response strategy.

Explain emergency department.

An emergency department (ED), also known as an accident and emergency department (A&E), emergency room (ER), emergency ward (EW), or casualty department, is a medical treatment facility with a focus on emergency medicine. Patients who arrive without an appointment—either on their own initiative or via ambulance—are given acute care in an ED. Typically, a hospital or other primary care facility will have an emergency room.

The emergency department is required to provide initial treatment for a wide range of illnesses and injuries because to the unscheduled nature of patient attendance, some of which may be life-threatening and require prompt attention.

The purpose of emergency response plans, like other emergency management planning papers, is to assist companies in responding to a variety of events, including hurricanes, wildfires, winter weather, chemical spills, disease outbreaks, and other risks.

Standard actions include: Make a threat assessment; List contact details; the assignment of positions and responsibilities; Take an inventory of your organization's present resources; decide on the steps for your reaction strategy; Choose your employees' communication channels.

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which statement made by a nursing student indicates effective learning about which intervention is included in a plan of care for a patient with chronic kidney disease who is taking gluconate and calcium acetate? hesi

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An effective understanding of what should be on a plan of care for a patient with chronic kidney disease who is receiving gluconate and calcium acetate is demonstrated by the nursing student's statement, "Administer a stool softener."

What is chronic kidney disease?

Chronic kidney disease, also referred to as chronic kidney failure, is characterized by a progressive loss of renal function. The kidneys filter the blood of wastes and surplus fluid, which is subsequently expelled through urine. If you have advanced chronic renal illness, your body may amass dangerous levels of fluid, electrolytes, and wastes.

When chronic kidney disease first starts, you might not exhibit many signs or symptoms. Kidney disease might not be identified until it has already progressed.

Treatment for chronic renal disease usually aims to address the underlying cause in order to decrease the progression of kidney damage. However, even if the kidney disease's root cause were to be eliminated, the damage would still continue to worsen.

Without mechanical filtering (dialysis) or a kidney transplant, the end-stage renal failure from chronic kidney disease is fatal.

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a client is admitted to the emergency room after being hit by a car while riding a bicycle. the client sustained a fracture of the left femur, and the bone is protruding through the skin. what type of fracture does the nurse recognize requires emergency intervention?

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Compound type of fracture is recognized and requires emergency intervention.

A fracture is a break in the bone. An open or compound fracture occurs when a broken bone punctures the skin. Fractures are commonly caused by car accidents, falls, or sports injuries. Low bone density and osteoporosis are two other causes of bone weakness.

A compound fracture is one in which the skin or mucous membranes are damaged, increasing the risk of infection. A greenstick fracture occurs when one side of the bone is broken and the other is bent; the bone does not protrude through the skin. An oblique fracture crosses the bone at an angle but does not protrude through the skin. A spiral fracture wraps around the bone shaft but does not protrude through the skin.

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A client with a digoxin level of 2.4 ng/ml has a heart rate of 39. The health care provider prescribes atropine sulfate. Which of the following best describes the intended action of atropine for this client?
The correct answer is: To accelerate the heart rate by interfering with vagal impulses.
Atropine accelerates the heart rate by interfering with vagal impulses. It is given IVP at doses of 0.5mg to 1.0mg per dose; every 3 to 5 minutes; up to 2.0mg. Doses less than 0.5mg may cause a paradoxical slowing of the heart rate. When Atropine is given to a client with history of an MI it should be used with great caution; increasing the heart rate also increases myocardial oxygen consumption!

Answers

The correct answer is: To accelerate the heart rate by interfering with vagal impulses. Atropine accelerates the heart rate by interfering with vagal impulses.

What is atropine?

Atropine is a tropane alkaloid and anticholinergic medicine used to treat certain types of whim-whams agent and fungicide poisoning, as well as some types of slow heart rate and to reduce slaver product during surgery.It's generally given intravenously or by injection into a muscle. Eye drops are also available that are used to treat uveitis and early amblyopia.The intravenous result generally begins to work within a nanosecond and lasts for half an hour to an hour. Large boluses may be needed to treat some poisonings.Common side goods include dry mouth, large pupils, urinary retention, constipationn and fast heart rate. In general, it shouldn't be used in people with angle- check glaucoma.

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tuberculosis and influenza are examples of: a.zoonoses. b.vectorborne diseases. c.vehicleborne diseases. d.airborne diseases.

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Tuberculosis and influenza are examples of airborne diseases and is therefore denoted as option D.

What is an Airborne disease?

These are the types of diseases which are caused by bacteria or viruses that are most commonly transmitted through small respiratory droplets. They are usually spread when people with certain infections cough, sneeze, or talk which results in nasal and throat secretions being released into the air.

Tuberculosis and influenza are examples of airborne diseases which means that they can be spread through the air and it is the reason why people with such conditions are usually isolated so as to reduce the risk of infection due to inhalation of the air around the affected individuals and is therefore the reason why option D was chosen as the correct choice.

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a client who is taking an oral hypoglycemic daily for type 2 diabetes develops an infection with anorexia. which advice will the nurse provide to the client? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.

Answers

The nurse should advise patients to consume water, take oral medications, and check their capillary glucose levels.

Explain about type 2 diabetes:

Type 2 diabetes is a disease in how well the body regulates and uses sugar (glucose) as fuel. The bloodstream circulates with too much sugar due to this chronic (long-term) condition. Over time, high blood sugar levels might cause problems with the cardiovascular, nervous, and immune systems.

When it comes to type 2 diabetes, there are essentially two related problems. Your pancreas does not create enough insulin, a hormone that regulates the amount of sugar that enters your cells. As a result, your cells do not respond well to insulin and take up less sugar.

Type 2 diabetes used to be referred to as adult-onset diabetes even though type 1 and type 2 can begin in childhood and maturity, respectively. Type 2 cases have increased in younger people because to the growth in juvenile obesity, even though type 2 is more common in senior folks.

Although there is no cure for type 2 diabetes, you can manage this condition by decreasing weight, eating healthfully, and exercising. You may also require diabetic drugs or insulin therapy to control the blood sugar if diet and exercise are insufficient.

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during an office visit, a prenatal client with mitral stenosis states she has been under a lot of stress lately. during data collection, the client questions everything the nurse does and behaves in an anxious manner. which is the appropriate nursing response or action at this time?

Answers

Explain the purpose of the nurse's actions and answer all questions.

Mitral valve stenosis, also known as mitral stenosis, is a narrowing of the valve that connects the two left heart chambers. The narrowed valve reduces or prevents blood flow into the main pumping chamber of the heart. The lower left heart chamber, also known as the left ventricle, is the main pumping chamber of the heart.

Rheumatic fever, a complication of strep throat, is the most common cause of mitral stenosis. This infection has the potential to scar the mitral valve, causing it to narrow.

Mitral valve stenosis can cause fatigue and shortness of breath. Other symptoms include irregular heartbeats, dizziness, chest pain, and blood coughing. Some people are oblivious to symptoms. Rheumatic fever, a complication of strep throat, can cause mitral valve stenosis.

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g medical imaging is used when a patient ingests a radioactive emitter, called a tracer, so a doctor can view an internal system. which tracer emission will penetrate through the body?

Answers

An imaging test called a PET scan enables your doctor to look for problems inside your body.

How does PET scan works?

A specific dye with radioactive tracers is used during the scan. The tracer is absorbed by specific organs and tissues, which allows your doctor to determine how well your organs and tissues are functioning.

What is the purpose of a PET scan?

PET scans are used to provide finely detailed three-dimensional images of the interior of the body. The images can clearly display the body portion under investigation, along with any aberrant areas, and they can draw attention to how well-functioning specific bodily processes are.

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during a nutritional counseling session, an adolescent says, 'i am not following my diet properly, but i know i should do it.' which stage of change model does the adolescent belong?

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In the contemplation stage of the change model, an adolescent who is receiving nutritional counseling admits, "I am not following my diet properly, but I know I should do so."

With different life, stages come diverse nutritional needs. It's critical to consider the additional demands these changes will impose on your body if you want to stay fit and healthy.

You should take in: to satisfy your body's regular nutritional requirements.

1. a large selection of wholesome foods

2. daily consumption of water

3. enough kilojoules, with carbs being the preferred source of energy.

4. necessary fatty acids from foods like avocados, almonds, and oily fish

5. sufficient protein for cellular upkeep and repair

6. vitamins that are both fat- and water-soluble

7. essential minerals like calcium, zinc, and iron

8. foods rich in phytochemicals, which can help prevent certain cancers, heart disease, diabetes, arthritis, and osteoporosis.

These fundamental needs can be satisfied by a varied diet that emphasizes fruits, vegetables, whole grains, legumes, dairy products, and lean meats.

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Why do you think that safety standards require employees to know all the potentially dangerous chemicals in an area, even if their jobs do not require use of the chemicals?
will mark brainliest

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Simple steps such as remaining vigilant, implementing safeguards and improving communication may significantly reduce medical errors in these groups. Certain hospital work processes are also more prone to errors.

What are the medical error?

A medical error is a preventable unfavourable outcome of treatment, whether it is obvious or harmful to the patient. This category includes misdiagnosis or inadequate treatment of a disease, accident, syndrome, behavior, infection, or other ailment.

Make sure all of your physicians are aware of any medication you are taking. When you visit the doctor, bring all of your medications and dietary supplements.

Therefore, Simple steps such as remaining vigilant, implementing safeguards and improving communication may significantly reduce medical errors in these groups. Certain hospital work processes are also more prone to errors.

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a patient who is a carrier for sickle cell anemia would have a gel electrophoresis pattern showing four bands, explain why.

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A carrier for sickle cell anemia would have a gel electrophoresis pattern showing four bands. This happens because: the restriction enzyme for the carrier patient is cut both at the normal fragments AND the mutant fragments at the same time.

How does the banding pattern in the DNA created?

The banding pattern consists of light and dark transverse bands on our chromosomes. When given a chemical solution and viewed under the microscope, we can find these bands to describe the location of genes on a chromosome. Mutation greatly affects the banding pattern as a normal person has 3 bands in their DNA, but a mutant has only 2 bands. People whose carrier for sickle cell anemia has 4 bands because they have both fragments (from normal and mutant) in their DNA.

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you are caring for a patient who is taking an antithyroid drug for the treatment of hyperthyroidism. which assessment should be performed before giving this drug?

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In a case whereby you are caring for a patient who is taking an antithyroid drug for the treatment of hyperthyroidism the assessment you should be performed before giving this drug is c. Check the skin and sclera for yellowing.

Which assessment you should be performed before treatment of hyperthyroidism?

It should be noted that these drugs are hepatotoxic which implies that you need to Check the patient's liver function tests and this should be done prior to giving these drugs however Both thyroid-suppressing drugs can be regarded as been hepatotoxic hence run a check on the patient daily for yellowing of the skin or sclera for jaundice.

However , Hyperthyroidism do take place when the thyroid gland makes too much thyroid hormone and this condition can be regharded as overactive thyroid. Hyperthyroidism speeds up the body's metabolism.

Therefore, option C is correct.

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missing options:

a. Check the pulse rate for irregular rate and rhythm.

b. Check the blood pressure for hypertension.

c. Check the skin and sclera for yellowing.

d. Check the lower extremities for edema.

a student nurse is caring for a client with iron deficiency anemia who is newly prescribed ferrous sulfate. which action by the student nurse requires the supervising nurse to intervene?

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The nurse assesses a client during suctioning.

Anemia outcomes from a loss of pink blood cells or dysfunctional pink blood cells in the frame. This results in reduced oxygen flow to the frame's organs. symptoms might also consist of fatigue, pores and skin pallor, shortness of breath, lightheadedness, dizziness, or a fast heartbeat.

Treatment depends on the underlying diagnosis. Iron supplements may be used for iron deficiency. nutrition B dietary supplements are perhaps used for low nutrition degrees. Blood transfusions can be used for blood loss. medicinal drugs to set off blood formation may be used if the frame’s blood production is decreased.

Anemia is a condition in which you lack sufficient wholesome red blood cells to carry good enough oxygen in your frame's tissues. Having anemia, also called low hemoglobin, could make you experience being worn out and susceptible. there are many styles of anemia, every with its own cause.

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the primary care provider prescribes a tocolytic for a pregnant client with premature rupture of the membranes who begins to have contractions every 10 minutes. the drug has had expected effects when the nurse observes which finding?

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When the contractions stop, the tocolytic has the anticipated impact on the expectant client. Tocolytic medications can halt uterine contractions and momentarily put off childbirth.

What does a tocolytic agent do?Tocolysis is a medical technique used during pregnancy to delay the delivery of a foetus in women who are experiencing preterm contractions. The goal of administering these drugs is to reduce foetal morbidity and mortality.Tocolysis is treated with a variety of medication types, such as beta-mimetics and magnesium sulphate. inhibitors of prostaglandins. Tocolysis works by establishing a calm environment in the uterus, which is supposed to extend gestation for two to seven days.The cardiovascular system of the mother, the metabolism of carbohydrates, and the foetal cardiovascular system are all adversely affected by tocolytics over the long term. Therefore, it is not advised to take prophylactic tocolytics for an extended period of time after stopping intravenous drugs.

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the nurse is attempting to locate the thyroid gland in order to determine if it is enlarged. where should the nurse palpate the thyroid gland? mid trachea the lower neck anterior to the trachea distal to the carotid arteries the upper neck posterior to the trachea

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The lower neck anterior to the trachea.

The thyroid gland is an important hormone gland that regulates metabolism, growth, and development in the human body. It aids in the regulation of many body functions by continuously releasing a consistent amount of thyroid hormones into the bloodstream.

When the immune system, which normally fights infection, attacks the thyroid gland, the thyroid becomes underactive. This damages the thyroid, causing it to be unable to produce enough of the hormone thyroxine, resulting in the symptoms of an underactive thyroid.

A computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan is used to detect a suspected pituitary tumor or to identify parathyroid gland calcifications or tumors. A radioactive iodine uptake test would be beneficial in the case of a thyroid tumor. The radioimmunoassay method is used to determine the concentration of a substance in plasma.

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You Are On The Scene Of A 68-year-old Patient With A History Of Copd Who Is Breathing 44 Times Per Minute (2024)

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